| Exam Code | CISMP-V9 |
| Exam Name | BCS Foundation Certificate in Information Security Management Principles V9.0 |
| Questions | 100 Questions Answers With Explanation |
| Update Date | June 06,2026 |
| Price |
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How might the effectiveness of a security awareness program be effectively measured? 1)Employees are required to take an online multiple choice exam on security principles.2)Employees are tested with social engineering techniques by an approved penetration tester. 3)Employees practice ethical hacking techniques on organisation systems.4)No security vulnerabilities are reported during an audit. 5)Open source intelligence gathering is undertaken on staff social media profiles.
A. 3, 4 and 5.
B. 2, 4 and 5.
C. 1, 2 and 3.
D. 1, 2 and 5.
Which of the following types of organisation could be considered the MOST at risk from the theft of electronic based credit card data?
A. Online retailer.
B. Traditional market trader.
C. Mail delivery business.
D. Agricultural producer.
Why might the reporting of security incidents that involve personaldata differ from other types of security incident?
A. Personal data is not highly transient so its 1 investigation rarely involves the preservation of volatile memory and full forensic digitalinvestigation.
B. Personal data is normally handled on both IT and non-IT systems so such incidents need to be managed in two streams.
C. Data Protection legislation normally requires the reporting of incidents involving personal data to a Supervisory Authority.
D. Data Protection legislation is process-oriented and focuses on quality assurance of procedures and governance rather thandata-focused event investigation
As well as being permitted to access, create, modify and delete information, what right does an Information Owner NORMALLY have in regardto their information?
A. To assign access privileges to others.
B. To modify associated information that may lead to inappropriate disclosure.
C. To access information held in the same format and file structure.
D. To delete all indexed data in the dataset.
Which of the following subjects is UNLIKELY to form part of a cloud service provision laaS contract?
A User security education.
B. Intellectual Property Rights.
C. End-of-service.
D. Liability
In a security governance framework, which of the following publications would be at the HIGHEST level?
A. Procedures.
B. Standards
C. Policy.
D. Guidelines
What aspect of an employee's contract of employment Is designed to prevent the unauthorised release of confidential data to third parties evenafter an employee has left their employment?
A. Segregation of Duties.
B. Non-disclosure.
C. Acceptable use policy.
D. Security clearance.
One traditional use of a SIEM appliance is to monitor for exceptions received via syslog.What system from the following does NOT natively support syslog events?
A. Enterprise Wireless Access Point.
B. Windows Desktop Systems.
C. Linux Web Server Appliances.
D. Enterprise Stateful Firewall.
When preserving a crime scene for digital evidence, what actions SHOULD a first responder initially make?
A. Remove power from all digital devices at the scene to stop the data changing.
B. Photograph all evidence and triage to determine whether live data capture is necessary.
C. Remove all digital evidence from the scene to prevent unintentional damage.
D. Don't touch any evidence until a senior digital investigator arrives.
Geoff wants to ensure the application of consistent security settings to devices used throughout his organisation whether as part of a mobilecomputing or a BYOD approach.What technology would be MOST beneficial to his organisation?
A. VPN.
B. IDS.
C. MDM.
D. SIEM.
Which of the following is NOT considered to be a form of computer misuse?
A. Illegal retention of personal data.
B. Illegal interception of information.
C. Illegal access to computer systems.
D. Downloading of pirated software.
When seeking third party digital forensics services, what two attributes should one seek when making a choice of service provider?
A. Appropriate company accreditation and staff certification.
B. Formal certification to ISO/IEC 27001 and alignment withISO 17025.
C. Affiliation with local law enforcement bodies and local government regulations.
D. Clean credit references as well as international experience.
Which type of facility is enabled by a contract with an alternative data processing facility which willprovide HVAC, power and communicationsinfrastructure as well computinghardware and a duplication of organisations existing "live" data?
A. Cold site.
B. Warm site.
C. Hot site.
D. Spare site
Which of the following is the MOST important reason for undertaking Continual Professional Development (CPD)within the Information Securitysphere?
A. Professional qualification bodies demand CPD.
B. Information Security changes constantly and at speed.
C. IT certifications require CPD and Security needs to remain credible.
D. CPD is a prerequisite of any Chartered Institution qualification.
Ensuring the correctness of data inputted to a system is an example of which facet of information security?
A. Confidentiality.
B. Integrity.
C. Availability.
D. Authenticity.
Which of the following uses are NOT usual ways that attackers have of leveraging botnets?
A. Generating and distributing spam messages.
B. Conducting DDOS attacks.
C. Scanning for system & application vulnerabilities.
D. Undertaking vishing attacks
Which of the following is a framework and methodology for Enterprise Security Architecture and Service Management?
A. TOGAF
B. SABSA
C. PCI DSS.
D. OWASP.
In order to maintain the currency of risk countermeasures, how often SHOULD an organisation review these risks?
A. Once defined, they do not need reviewing.
B. A maximum of once every other month.
C. When the next risk audit is due.
D. Risks remain under constant review.
Which term describes the acknowledgement and acceptance of ownership of actions, decisions, policies and deliverables?
A. Accountability.
B. Responsibility.
C. Credibility.
D. Confidentiality.
What types of web application vulnerabilities continue to be the MOST prolific according to the OWASP Top 10?
A. Poor Password Management.
B. Insecure Deserialsiation.
C. Injection Flaws.
D. Security Misconfiguration
When securing a wireless network, which of the following is NOT best practice?
A. Using WPA encryption on the wireless network.
B. Use MAC tittering on a SOHO network with a smart group of clients.
C. Dedicating an access point on a dedicated VLAN connected to a firewall.
D. Turning on SSID broadcasts to advertise security levels.
Why is it prudent for Third Parties to be contracted to meet specific security standards?
A. Vulnerabilities in Third Party networks can be malevolently leveraged to gain illicit access into client environments.
B. It is a legal requirement for Third Party support companies to meet client security standards.
C. All access to corporate systems must be controlled via a single set of rules if they are to be enforceable.
D. Third Parties cannot connect to other sites and networks without a contract of similar legal agreement.
Which three of the following characteristics form the AAA Triad in Information Security? 1. Authentication 2. Availability 3. Accounting 4. Asymmetry 5. Authorisation
A. 1, 2 and 3.
B. 2, 4, and 5.
C. 1, 3 and 4.
D. 1, 3 and 5.
Which of the following is an asymmetric encryption algorithm?
A. DES.
B. AES.
C. ATM.
D. RSA.
Which of the following is an accepted strategic option for dealing with risk?
A. Correction.
B. Detection.
C. Forbearance.
D. Acceptance
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