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CompTIA SY0-701 Sample Questions
Question # 1
A company would like to provide employees with computers that do not have access to the internetin order to prevent information from being leaked to an online forum. Which of the following wouldbe best for the systems administrator to implement?
A. Air gap B. Jump server C. Logical segmentation D. Virtualization
Answer: A Explanation:To provide employees with computers that do not have access to the internet and preventinformation leaks to an online forum, implementing an air gap would be the best solution. An air gapphysically isolates the computer or network from any outside connections, including the internet,ensuring that data cannot be transferred to or from the system.Air gap: A security measure that isolates a computer or network from the internet or other networks,preventing any form of electronic communication with external systems.Jump server: A secure server used to access and manage devices in a different security zone, but itdoes not provide isolation from the internet.Logical segmentation: Segregates networks using software or network configurations, but it does notguarantee complete isolation from the internet.Virtualization: Creates virtual instances of systems, which can be isolated, but does not inherentlyprevent internet access without additional configurations.Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.5 - Explain the purpose of mitigation techniques used to secure the enterprise (Air gap) .
Question # 2
An administrator needs to perform server hardening before deployment. Which of the followingsteps should the administrator take? (Select two)
A. Disable default accounts. B. Add the server to the asset inventory. C. Remove unnecessary services. D. Document default passwords. E. Send server logs to the SIEM.E. Join the server to the corporate domain.
Answer: A, C Explanation:To perform server hardening before deployment, the administrator should disable default accountsand remove unnecessary services. These steps are crucial to reducing the attack surface andenhancing the security of the server.Disable default accounts: Default accounts often come with default credentials that are well-knownand can be exploited by attackers. Disabling these accounts helps prevent unauthorized access.Remove unnecessary services: Unnecessary services can introduce vulnerabilities and be exploitedby attackers. Removing them reduces the number of potential attack vectors.Add the server to the asset inventory: Important for tracking and management but not directlyrelated to hardening.Document default passwords: Documentation is useful, but changing or disabling default passwordsis the hardening step.Send server logs to the SIEM: Useful for monitoring and analysis but not a direct hardening step.Join the server to the corporate domain: Part of integration into the network but not specific tohardening.Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1 - Compare and contrast varioustypes of security controls (Server hardening) .
Question # 3
Which of the following tasks is typically included in the BIA process?
A. Estimating the recovery time of systems B. Identifying the communication strategy C. Evaluating the risk management plan D. Establishing the backup and recovery procedures E. Developing the incident response plan
Answer: A Explanation:Estimating the recovery time of systems is a task typically included in the Business Impact Analysis(BIA) process. BIA involves identifying the critical functions of a business and determining the impactof a disruption. This includes estimating how long it will take to recover systems and resume normaloperations.Estimating the recovery time of systems: A key component of BIA, which helps in understanding thetime needed to restore systems and services after a disruption.Identifying the communication strategy: Typically part of the incident response plan, not BIA.Evaluating the risk management plan: Part of risk management, not specifically BIA.Establishing the backup and recovery procedures: Important for disaster recovery, not directly part ofBIA.Developing the incident response plan: Focuses on responding to security incidents, not on theimpact analysis.Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 5.2 - Risk management process(Business Impact Analysis - BIA) .
Question # 4
Which of the following describes effective change management procedures?
A. Approving the change after a successful deployment B. Having a backout plan when a patch fails C. Using a spreadsheet for tracking changes D. Using an automatic change control bypass for security updates
Answer: B Effective change management procedures include having a backout plan when a patch fails. Abackout plan ensures that there are predefined steps to revert the system to its previous state if thenew change or patch causes issues, thereby minimizing downtime and mitigating potential negativeimpacts.Having a backout plan when a patch fails: Essential for ensuring that changes can be safely revertedin case of problems, maintaining system stability and availability.Approving the change after a successful deployment: Changes should be approved beforedeployment, not after.Using a spreadsheet for tracking changes: While useful for documentation, it is not a comprehensivechange management procedure.Using an automatic change control bypass for security updates: Bypassing change control can lead tounapproved and potentially disruptive changes.Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.3 - Explain the importance ofchange management processes (Backout plan) .
Question # 5
A security administrator is configuring fileshares. The administrator removed the default permissionsand added permissions for only users who will need to access the fileshares as part of their jobduties. Which of the following best describes why the administrator performed these actions?
A. Encryption standard compliance B. Data replication requirements C. Least privilege D. Access control monitoring
Answer: C Explanation: The security administrator's actions of removing default permissions and adding permissions only forusers who need access as part of their job duties best describe the principle of least privilege. Thisprinciple ensures that users are granted the minimum necessary access to perform their jobfunctions, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or data breaches.Least privilege: Limits access rights for users to the bare minimum necessary for their job duties,enhancing security by reducing potential attack surfaces.Encryption standard compliance: Involves meeting encryption requirements, but it does not explainthe removal and assignment of specific permissions.Data replication requirements: Focus on duplicating data across different systems for redundancy andavailability, not related to user permissions.Access control monitoring: Involves tracking and reviewing access to resources, but the scenario isabout setting permissions, not monitoring them.Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.5 - Modify enterprise capabilitiesto enhance security (Least privilege) .
Question # 6
A systems administrator would like to deploy a change to a production system. Which of thefollowing must the administrator submit to demonstrate that the system can be restored to aworking state in the event of a performance issue?
A. Backout plan B. Impact analysis C. Test procedure D. Approval procedure
Answer: A Explanation: To demonstrate that the system can be restored to a working state in the event of a performanceissue after deploying a change, the systems administrator must submit a backout plan. A backoutplan outlines the steps to revert the system to its previous state if the new deployment causesproblems.Backout plan: Provides detailed steps to revert changes and restore the system to its previous state incase of issues, ensuring minimal disruption and quick recovery.Impact analysis: Evaluates the potential effects of a change but does not provide steps to revertchanges.Test procedure: Details the steps for testing the change but does not address restoring the system toa previous state.Approval procedure: Involves obtaining permissions for the change but does not ensure systemrecovery in case of issues.Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.3 - Explain the importance ofchange management processes (Backout plan) .
Question # 7
An organization wants to ensure the integrity of compiled binaries in the production environment.Which of the following security measures would best support this objective?
A. Input validation B. Code signing C. SQL injection D. Static analysis
Answer: B Explanation: To ensure the integrity of compiled binaries in the production environment, the best securitymeasure is code signing. Code signing uses digital signatures to verify the authenticity and integrityof the software, ensuring that the code has not been tampered with or altered after it was signed.Code signing: Involves signing code with a digital signature to verify its authenticity and integrity,ensuring the compiled binaries have not been altered.Input validation: Ensures that only properly formatted data enters an application but does not verifythe integrity of compiled binaries.SQL injection: A type of attack, not a security measure.Static analysis: Analyzes code for vulnerabilities and errors but does not ensure the integrity ofcompiled binaries in production.Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.4 - Explain the importance ofusing appropriate cryptographic solutions (Code signing) .
Question # 8
A company is decommissioning its physical servers and replacing them with an architecture that willreduce the number of individual operating systems. Which of the following strategies should thecompany use to achieve this security requirement?
A. Microservices B. Containerization C. Virtualization D. Infrastructure as code
Answer: B Explanation:To reduce the number of individual operating systems while decommissioning physical servers, thecompany should use containerization. Containerization allows multiple applications to run in isolatedenvironments on a single operating system, significantly reducing the overhead compared to runningmultiple virtual machines, each with its own OS.Containerization: Uses containers to run multiple isolated applications on a single OS kernel,reducing the need for multiple OS instances and improving resource utilization.Microservices: An architectural style that structures an application as a collection of loosely coupledservices, which does not necessarily reduce the number of operating systems.Virtualization: Allows multiple virtual machines to run on a single physical server, but each VMrequires its own OS, not reducing the number of OS instances.Infrastructure as code: Manages and provisions computing infrastructure through machine-readableconfiguration files, but it does not directly impact the number of operating systems.Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 3.1 - Compare and contrast securityimplications of different architecture models (Containerization) .
Question # 9
A company hired a security manager from outside the organization to lead security operations.Which of the following actions should the security manager perform first in this new role?
A. Establish a security baseline. B. Review security policies. C. Adopt security benchmarks. D. Perform a user ID revalidation
Answer: B Explanation:When a security manager is hired from outside the organization to lead security operations, the firstaction should be to review the existing security policies. Understanding the current security policiesprovides a foundation for identifying strengths, weaknesses, and areas that require improvement,ensuring that the security program aligns with the organization's goals and regulatory requirements.Review security policies: Provides a comprehensive understanding of the existing securityframework, helping the new manager to identify gaps and areas for enhancement.Establish a security baseline: Important but should be based on a thorough understanding of existingpolicies and practices.Adopt security benchmarks: Useful for setting standards, but reviewing current policies is a necessaryprecursor.Perform a user ID revalidation: Important for ensuring user access is appropriate but not the first stepin understanding overall security operations.Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1 - Summarize elements ofeffective security governance (Reviewing security policies) .
Question # 10
Which of the following security controls is most likely being used when a critical legacy server issegmented into a private network?
A. Deterrent B. Corrective C. Compensating D. Preventive
Answer: C Explanation:When a critical legacy server is segmented into a private network, the security control being used iscompensating. Compensating controls are alternative measures put in place to satisfy a securityrequirement when the primary control is not feasible or practical. In this case, segmenting the legacyserver into a private network serves as a compensating control to protect it from potentialvulnerabilities that cannot be mitigated directly.Compensating: Provides an alternative method to achieve the desired security outcome when theprimary control is not possible.Deterrent: Aims to discourage potential attackers but does not directly address segmentation.Corrective: Used to correct or mitigate the impact of an incident after it has occurred.Preventive: Aims to prevent security incidents but is not specific to the context of segmentation.Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1 - Compare and contrast varioustypes of security controls (Compensating controls) .
Question # 11
A company that is located in an area prone to hurricanes is developing a disaster recovery plan andlooking at site considerations that allow the company to immediately continue operations. Which ofthe following is the best type of site for this company?
A. Cold B. Tertiary C. Warm D. Hot
Answer: D Explanation:For a company located in an area prone to hurricanes and needing to immediately continueoperations, the best type of site is a hot site. A hot site is a fully operational offsite data center that isequipped with hardware, software, and network connectivity and is ready to take over operationswith minimal downtime.Hot site: Fully operational and can take over business operations almost immediately after a disaster.Cold site: A basic site with infrastructure in place but without hardware or data, requiring significanttime to become operational.Tertiary site: Not a standard term in disaster recovery; it usually refers to an additional backuplocation but lacks the specifics of readiness.Warm site: Equipped with hardware and connectivity but requires some time and effort to becomefully operational, not as immediate as a hot site.Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 3.4 - Importance of resilience andrecovery in security architecture (Site considerations: Hot site) .
Question # 12
A security administrator identifies an application that is storing data using MD5. Which of thefollowing best identifies the vulnerability likely present in the application?
A. Cryptographic B. Malicious update C. Zero day D. Side loading
Answer: A Explanation:The vulnerability likely present in the application that is storing data using MD5 is a cryptographicvulnerability. MD5 is considered to be a weak hashing algorithm due to its susceptibility to collisionattacks, where two different inputs produce the same hash output, compromising data integrity andsecurity.Cryptographic: Refers to vulnerabilities in cryptographic algorithms or implementations, such as theweaknesses in MD5.Malicious update: Refers to the intentional injection of harmful updates, not related to the use ofMD5.Zero day: Refers to previously unknown vulnerabilities for which no patch is available, not specificallyrelated to MD5.Side loading: Involves installing software from unofficial sources, not directly related to the use ofMD5.Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.4 - Explain the importance ofusing appropriate cryptographic solutions (MD5 vulnerabilities)
Question # 13
A security engineer needs to configure an NGFW to minimize the impact of the increasing number ofvarious traffic types during attacks. Which of the following types of rules is the engineer the mostlikely to configure?
A. Signature-based B. Behavioral-based C. URL-based D. Agent-based
Answer: B Explanation:To minimize the impact of the increasing number of various traffic types during attacks, a securityengineer is most likely to configure behavioral-based rules on a Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW).Behavioral-based rules analyze the behavior of traffic patterns and can detect and block unusual ormalicious activity that deviates from normal behavior.Behavioral-based: Detects anomalies by comparing current traffic behavior to known good behavior,making it effective against various traffic types during attacks.Signature-based: Relies on known patterns of known threats, which might not be as effective againstnew or varied attack types.URL-based: Controls access to websites based on URL categories but is not specifically aimed athandling diverse traffic types during attacks.Agent-based: Typically involves software agents on endpoints to monitor and enforce policies, notdirectly related to NGFW rules.Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.5 - Modify enterprise capabilitiesto enhance security (Behavioral-based rules on NGFW) .
Question # 14
A network administrator is working on a project to deploy a load balancer in the company's cloudenvironment. Which of the following fundamental security requirements does this project fulfill?
A. Privacy B. Integrity C. Confidentiality D. Availability
Answer: D Explanation: Deploying a load balancer in the company's cloud environment primarily fulfills the fundamentalsecurity requirement of availability. A load balancer distributes incoming network traffic acrossmultiple servers, ensuring that no single server becomes overwhelmed and that the service remainsavailable even if some servers fail.Availability: Ensures that services and resources are accessible when needed, which is directlyQuestions and Answers PDF 139/149supported by load balancing.Privacy: Protects personal and sensitive information from unauthorized access but is not directlyrelated to load balancing.Integrity: Ensures that data is accurate and has not been tampered with, but load balancing is notprimarily focused on data integrity.Confidentiality: Ensures that information is accessible only to authorized individuals, which is not theprimary concern of load balancing.Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.2 - Summarize fundamentalsecurity concepts (Availability) .
Question # 15
The marketing department set up its own project management software without telling theappropriate departments. Which of the following describes this scenario?
A. Shadow IT B. Insider threat C. Data exfiltration D. Service disruption
Answer: A Explanation:The marketing department setting up its own project management software without informing theappropriate departments is an example of Shadow IT. Shadow IT refers to the use of IT systems,devices, software, applications, and services without explicit approval from the IT department.Shadow IT: Involves the use of unauthorized systems and applications within an organization, whichcan lead to security risks and compliance issues.Insider threat: Refers to threats from individuals within the organization who may intentionally causeharm or misuse their access, but this scenario is more about unauthorized use rather than maliciousintent.Data exfiltration: Involves unauthorized transfer of data out of the organization, which is not themain issue in this scenario.Service disruption: Refers to interruptions in service availability, which is not directly related to themarketing department's actions.Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.1 - Compare and contrastcommon threat actors and motivations (Shadow IT) .
Question # 16
During a recent breach, employee credentials were compromised when a service desk employeeissued an MFA bypass code to an attacker who called and posed as an employee. Which of thefollowing should be used to prevent this type of incident in the future?
A. Hardware token MFA B. Biometrics C. Identity proofing D. Least privilege
Answer: C Explanation:To prevent the issuance of an MFA bypass code to an attacker posing as an employee, implementingidentity proofing would be most effective. Identity proofing involves verifying the identity ofindividuals before granting access or providing sensitive information.Identity proofing: Ensures that the person requesting the MFA bypass is who they claim to be,thereby preventing social engineering attacks where attackers pose as legitimate employees.Hardware token MFA: Provides an additional factor for authentication but does not address verifyingthe requester's identity.Biometrics: Offers strong authentication based on physical characteristics but is not related to theprocess of issuing MFA bypass codes.Least privilege: Limits access rights for users to the bare minimum necessary to perform their workbut does not prevent social engineering attacks targeting the service desk.Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.6 - Implement and maintainidentity and access management (Identity proofing) .
Question # 17
To improve the security at a data center, a security administrator implements a CCTV system andposts several signs about the possibility of being filmed. Which of the following best describe thesetypes of controls? (Select two).
Answer: BF DetectiveAnswer: BFExplanation:The CCTV system and signs about the possibility of being filmed serve as both deterrent anddetective controls.Deterrent controls: Aim to discourage potential attackers from attempting unauthorized actions.Posting signs about CCTV serves as a deterrent by warning individuals that their actions are beingmonitored.Detective controls: Identify and record unauthorized or suspicious activity. The CCTV system itselffunctions as a detective control by capturing and recording footage that can be reviewed later.Preventive controls: Aim to prevent security incidents but are not directly addressed by the CCTV andsigns in this context.Corrective controls: Aim to correct or mitigate the impact of a security incident.Directive controls: Provide guidelines or instructions but are not directly addressed by the CCTV andsigns.Compensating controls: Provide alternative measures to compensate for the absence or failure ofprimary controls.Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1 - Compare and contrast varioustypes of security controls (Deterrent and detective controls)
Question # 18
A manager receives an email that contains a link to receive a refund. After hovering over the link, themanager notices that the domain's URL points to a suspicious link. Which of the following securitypractices helped the manager to identify the attack?
A. End user training B. Policy review C. URL scanning D. Plain text email
Answer: A Explanation:The security practice that helped the manager identify the suspicious link is end-user training.Training users to recognize phishing attempts and other social engineering attacks, such as hoveringover links to check the actual URL, is a critical component of an organization's security awarenessprogram.End user training: Educates employees on how to identify and respond to security threats, includingsuspicious emails and phishing attempts.Policy review: Ensures that policies are understood and followed but does not directly help inidentifying specific attacks.URL scanning: Automatically checks URLs for threats, but the manager identified the issue manually.Plain text email: Ensures email content is readable without executing scripts, but the identification inthis case was due to user awareness.Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 5.6 - Implement security awarenesspractices (End-user training) .
Question # 19
Which of the following penetration testing teams is focused only on trying to compromise anorganization using an attacker's tactics?
A. White B. Red C. Purple D. Blue
Answer: B Explanation:Red teams are focused only on trying to compromise an organization using an attacker's tactics. Theysimulate real-world attacks to test the effectiveness of the organization's security defenses andidentify vulnerabilities.Red team: Acts as adversaries to simulate attacks and find security weaknesses.White team: Oversees and ensures the rules of engagement are followed during the penetrationtest.Purple team: Facilitates collaboration between the red team and the blue team to improve security.Blue team: Defends against attacks and responds to security incidents.Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 5.5 - Types and purposes of auditsand assessments (Penetration testing: Red team) .
Question # 20
An engineer moved to another team and is unable to access the new team's shared folders while stillbeing able to access the shared folders from the former team. After opening a ticket, the engineerdiscovers that the account was never moved to the new group. Which of the following accesscontrols is most likely causing the lack of access?
A. Role-based B. Discretionary C. Time of day D. Least privilege
Answer: A Explanation:The most likely access control causing the lack of access is role-based access control (RBAC). In RBAC,access to resources is determined by the roles assigned to users. Since the engineer's account wasnot moved to the new group's role, the engineer does not have the necessary permissions to accessthe new team's shared folders.Role-based access control (RBAC): Assigns permissions based on the user's role within theorganization. If the engineer's role does not include the new group's permissions, access will bedenied.Discretionary access control (DAC): Access is based on the discretion of the data owner, but it is nottypically related to group membership changes.Time of day: Restricts access based on the time but does not affect group memberships.Least privilege: Ensures users have the minimum necessary permissions, but the issue here is aboutgroup membership, not the principle of least privilege.Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.6 - Implement and maintainidentity and access management (Role-based access control) .
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