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CompTIA CV0-003 Sample Questions
Question # 1
A systems administrator is troubleshooting performance issues with a VDI environment. The
administrator determines the issue is GPU related and then increases the frame buffer on the virtual
machines. Testing confirms the issue is solved, and everything is now working correctly. Which of the
following should the administrator do NEXT?
A. Consult corporate policies to ensure the fix is allowed B. Conduct internal and external research based on the symptoms C. Document the solution and place it in a shared knowledge base D. Establish a plan of action to resolve the issue
Answer: C
Explanation: Documenting the solution and placing it in a shared knowledge base is what the administrator
should do next after troubleshooting performance issues with a VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure)
environment, determining that the issue is GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) related, increasing the
frame buffer on the virtual machines, and testing that confirms that the issue is solved and
everything is now working correctly. Documenting the solution is a process of recording and
describing what was done to fix or resolve an issue, such as actions, steps, methods, etc., as well as
why and how it worked. Placing it in a shared knowledge base is a process of storing and organizing
documented solutions in a central location or repository that can be accessed and used by others.
Documenting the solution and placing it in a shared knowledge base can provide benefits such as:
Learning: Documenting the solution and placing it in a shared knowledge base can help to learn from
past experiences and improve skills and knowledge.
Sharing: Documenting the solution and placing it in a shared knowledge base can help to share
information and insights with others who may face similar issues or situations.
Reusing: Documenting the solution and placing it in a shared knowledge base can help to reuse
existing solutions for future issues or situations.
Question # 2
A disaster situation has occurred, and the entire team needs to be informed about the situation.
Which of the following documents will help the administrator find the details of the relevant team
members for escalation?
A. Chain of custody B. Root cause analysis C. Playbook D. Call tree
Answer: D
Explanation: A call tree is what will help the administrator find the details of the relevant team members for
escalation after a disaster situation has occurred and the entire team needs to be informed about the
situation. A call tree is a document or diagram that shows the hierarchy or sequence of
communication or notification among team members in case of an emergency or incident, such as a
disaster situation. A call tree can help to find the details of the relevant team members for escalation
by providing information such as:
Name: This indicates who is involved in the communication or notification process, such as team
members, managers, stakeholders, etc.
Role: This indicates what is their function or responsibility in the communication or notification
process, such as initiator, receiver, sender, etc.
Contact: This indicates how they can be reached or contacted in the communication or notification
process, such as phone number, email address, etc
Question # 3
An administrator recently provisioned a file server in the cloud. Based on financial considerations,
the administrator has a limited amount of disk space. Which of the following will help control the
amount of space that is being used?
A. Thick provisioning B. Software-defined storage C. User quotas D. Network file system
Answer: C Explanation: User quotas are what will help control the amount of space that is being used by a file server in the
cloud that has a limited amount of disk space due to financial considerations. User quotas are the
limits or restrictions that are imposed on the amount of space that each user can use or consume on
a file server or storage device. User quotas can help to control the amount of space that is being used
by:
Preventing or reducing wastage or overuse of space by users who may store unnecessary or
redundant files or data on the file server or storage device.
Ensuring fair and equal distribution or allocation of space among users who may have different needs
or demands for space on the file server or storage device.
Monitoring and managing the usage or consumption of space by users who may need to be notified
or alerted when they reach or exceed their quota on the file server or storage device.
Question # 4
A company wants to move its environment from on premises to the cloud without vendor lock-in.
Which of the following would BEST meet this requirement?
A. DBaaS B. SaaS C. IaaS D. PaaS
Answer: C
Explanation: IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) is what would best meet the requirement of moving an
environment from on premises to the cloud without vendor lock-in. Vendor lock-in is a situation
where customers become dependent on or tied to a specific vendor or provider for their products or
services, and face difficulties
Question # 5
A systems administrator is deploying a new cloud application and needs to provision cloud services
with minimal effort. The administrator wants to reduce the tasks required for maintenance, such as
OS patching, VM and volume provisioning, and autoscaling configurations. Which of the following
would be the BEST option to deploy the new application?
A. A VM cluster B. Containers C. OS templates D. Serverless
Answer: D
Explanation: Serverless is what would be the best option to deploy a new cloud application and provision cloud
services with minimal effort while reducing the tasks required for maintenance such as OS patching,
VM and volume provisioning, and autoscaling configurations. Serverless is a cloud service model that
provides customers with a platform to run applications or functions without having to manage or
provision any underlying infrastructure or resources, such as servers, storage, network, OS, etc.
Serverless can provide benefits such as:
Minimal effort: Serverless can reduce the effort required to deploy a new cloud application and
provision cloud services by automating and abstracting away all the infrastructure or resource
management or provisioning tasks from customers, and allowing them to focus only on writing code
or logic for their applications or functions.
Reduced maintenance: Serverless can reduce the tasks required for maintenance by handling all the
infrastructure or resource maintenance tasks for customers, such as OS patching, VM and volume
provisioning, autoscaling configurations, etc., and ensuring that they are always up-to-date and
optimized.
Question # 6
A cloud administrator used a deployment script to recreate a number of servers hosted in a publiccloud
provider_ However, after the script completes, the administrator receives the following error
when attempting to connect to one of the servers Via SSH from the administrators workstation:
CHANGED. Which of the following IS the MOST likely cause of the issue?
A. The DNS records need to be updated B. The cloud provider assigned a new IP address to the server. C. The fingerprint on the server's RSA key is different D. The administrator has not copied the public key to the server.
Answer: C Explanation: This error indicates that the SSH client has detected a change in the server's RSA key, which is used
to authenticate the server and establish a secure connection. The SSH client stores the fingerprints of
the servers it has previously connected to in a file called known_hosts, which is usually located in the
~/.ssh directory. When the SSH client tries to connect to a server, it compares the fingerprint of the
server's RSA key with the one stored in the known_hosts file. If they match, the connection proceeds.
If they do not match, the SSH client warns the user of a possible man-in-the-middle attack or a host
key change, and aborts the connection. The most likely cause of this error is that the deployment script has recreated the server with a new
RSA key, which does not match the one stored in the known_hosts file. This can happen when a
server is reinstalled, cloned, or migrated. To resolve this error, the administrator needs to remove or
update the old fingerprint from the known_hosts file, and accept the new fingerprint when
connecting to the server again. Alternatively, the administrator can use a tool or service that can
synchronize or manage the RSA keys across multiple servers, such as AWS Key Management Service
(AWS KMS) 1, Azure Key Vault 2, or HashiCorp Vault 3.
Question # 7
A company is considering consolidating a number of physical machines into a virtual infrastructure
that will be located at its main office. The company has the following requirements:
High-performance VMs
More secure
Has system independence
Which of the following is the BEST platform for the company to use?
A. Type 1 hypervisor B. Type 2 hypervisor C. Software application virtualization D. Remote dedicated hosting
Answer: A
Explanation: A type 1 hypervisor is what would best meet the requirements of high-performance VMs (Virtual
Machines), more secure, and has system independence for a company that wants to move its
environment from on premises to the cloud without vendor lock-in. A hypervisor is a software or
hardware that allows multiple VMs to run on a single physical host or server. A hypervisor can be
classified into two types:
Type 1 hypervisor: This is a hypervisor that runs directly on the hardware or bare metal of the host or
server, without any underlying OS (Operating System). A type 1 hypervisor can provide benefits such
as:
High-performance: A type 1 hypervisor can provide high-performance by eliminating any overhead
or interference from an OS, and allowing direct access and control of the hardware resources by the
VMs.
More secure: A type 1 hypervisor can provide more security by reducing the attack surface or
exposure of the host or server, and isolating and protecting the VMs from each other and from the
hardware.
System independence: A type 1 hypervisor can provide system independence by allowing different
types of OSs to run on the VMs, regardless of the hardware or vendor of the host or server.
Type 2 hypervisor: This is a hypervisor that runs on top of an OS of the host or server, as a software
application or program. A type 2 hypervisor can provide benefits such as:
Ease of installation and use: A type 2 hypervisor can be easily installed and used as a software
application or program on an existing OS, without requiring any changes or modifications to the
hardware or configuration of the host or server.
Compatibility and portability: A type 2 hypervisor can be compatible and portable with different
types of hardware or devices that support the OS of the host or server, such as laptops, desktops,
smartphones, etc.
Question # 8
A cloud engineer needs to perform a database migration_ The database has a restricted SLA and
cannot be offline for more than ten minutes per month The database stores 800GB of data, and the
network bandwidth to the CSP is 100MBps. Which of the following is the BEST option to perform the
migration?
A. Copy the database to an external device and ship the device to the CSP B. Create a replica database, synchronize the data, and switch to the new instance. C. Utilize a third-patty tool to back up and restore the data to the new database D. use the database import/export method and copy the exported file.
Answer: B Explanation: The correct answer is B. Create a replica database, synchronize the data, and switch to the new
instance. This option is the best option to perform the migration because it can minimize the downtime and
data loss during the migration process. A replica database is a copy of the source database that is
kept in sync with the changes made to the original database. By creating a replica database in the
cloud, the cloud engineer can transfer the data incrementally and asynchronously, without affecting
the availability and performance of the source database. When the replica database is fully
synchronized with the source database, the cloud engineer can switch to the new instance by
updating the connection settings and redirecting the traffic. This can reduce the downtime to a few
minutes or seconds, depending on the complexity of the switch. Some of the tools and services that can help create a replica database and synchronize the data are
AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS) 1, Azure Database Migration Service 2, and Striim 3.
These tools and services can support various source and target databases, such as Oracle, MySQL,
PostgreSQL, SQL Server, MongoDB, etc. They can also provide features such as schema conversion,
data validation, monitoring, and security. The other options are not the best options to perform the migration because they can cause more
downtime and data loss than the replica database option. Copying the database to an external device and shipping the device to the CSP is a slow and risky
option that can take days or weeks to complete. It also exposes the data to physical damage or theft
during transit. Moreover, this option does not account for the changes made to the source database
after copying it to the device, which can result in data inconsistency and loss. Utilizing a third-party tool to back up and restore the data to the new database is a faster option than
shipping a device, but it still requires a significant amount of downtime and bandwidth. The source
database has to be offline or in read-only mode during the backup process, which can take hours or
days depending on the size of the data and the network speed. The restore process also requires
downtime and bandwidth, as well as compatibility checks and configuration adjustments. Additionally, this option does not account for the changes made to the source database after backing
it up, which can result in data inconsistency and loss. Using the database import/export method and copying the exported file is a similar option to using a
third-party tool, but it relies on native database features rather than external tools. The
import/export method involves exporting the data from the source database into a file format that
can be imported into the target database. The file has to be copied over to the target database and
then imported into it. This option also requires downtime and bandwidth during both export and
import processes, as well as compatibility checks and configuration adjustments. Furthermore, this
option does not account for the changes made to the source database after exporting it, which can
result in data inconsistency and loss.
Question # 9
Users of a public website that is hosted on a cloud platform are receiving a message indicating the
connection is not secure when landing on the website. The administrator has found that only a single
protocol is opened to the service and accessed through the URL https://www.comptiasite.com.
Which of the following would MOST likely resolve the issue?
A. Renewing the expired certificate B. Updating the web-server software C. Changing the crypto settings on the web server D. Upgrading the users' browser to the latest version
Answer: A
Explanation: Renewing the expired certificate is what would most likely resolve the issue of users receiving a
message indicating the connection is not secure when landing on a website that is hosted on a cloud
platform and accessed through https://www.comptiasite.com. A certificate is a digital document that
contains information such as identity, public key, expiration date, etc., that can be used to prove
one's identity and establish secure communication over a network. A certificate can expire when it
reaches its validity period and needs to be renewed or replaced. An expired certificate can cause
users to receive a message indicating the connection is not secure by indicating that the website's
identity or security cannot be verified or trusted. Renewing the expired certificate can resolve the
issue by extending its validity period and restoring its identity or security verification or trust.
Question # 10
A cloud administrator is assigned to establish a connection between the on-premises data center and
the new CSP infrastructure. The connection between the two locations must be secure at all times
and provide service for all users inside the organization. Low latency is also required to improve
performance during data transfer operations. Which of the following would BEST meet these
requirements?
A. A VPC peering configuration B. An IPSec tunnel C. An MPLS connection D. A point-to-site VPN
Answer: B
Explanation: An IPSec tunnel is what would best meet the requirements of establishing a connection between the
on-premises data center and the new CSP infrastructure that is secure at all times and provides
service for all users inside the organization with low latency. IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) is a
protocol that encrypts and secures network traffic over IP networks. IPSec tunnel is a mode of IPSec
that creates a virtual private network (VPN) tunnel between two endpoints, such as routers,
firewalls, gateways, etc., and encrypts and secures all traffic that passes through it. An IPSec tunnel
can meet the requirements by providing:
Security: An IPSec tunnel can protect network traffic from interception, modification, spoofing, etc.,
by using encryption, authentication, integrity, etc., mechanisms.
Service: An IPSec tunnel can provide service for all users inside the organization by allowing them to
access and use network resources or services on both ends of the tunnel, regardless of their physical
location.
Low latency: An IPSec tunnel can provide low latency by reducing the number of hops or devices that
network traffic has to pass through between the endpoints of the tunnel.
Question # 11
A Cloud administrator needs to reduce storage costs. Which of the following would BEST help the
administrator reach that goal?
A. Enabling compression B. Implementing deduplication C. Using containers D. Rightsizing the VMS
Answer: B Explanation: The correct answer is B. Implementing deduplication would best help the administrator reduce
storage costs. Deduplication is a technique that eliminates redundant copies of data and stores only one unique
instance of the dat a. This can reduce the amount of storage space required and lower the storage costs. Deduplication
can be applied at different levels, such as file-level, block-level, or object-level. Deduplication can
also improve the performance and efficiency of backup and recovery operations. Enabling compression is another technique that can reduce storage costs, but it may not be as
effective as deduplication, depending on the type and amount of data. Compression reduces the size
of data by applying algorithms that remove or replace redundant or unnecessary bits. Compression
can also affect the quality and accessibility of the data, depending on the compression ratio and
method. Using containers and rightsizing the VMs are techniques that can reduce compute costs, but not
necessarily storage costs. Containers are lightweight and portable units of software that run on a
shared operating system and include only the necessary dependencies and libraries. Containers can
reduce the overhead and resource consumption of virtual machines (VMs), which require a full
operating system for each instance. Rightsizing the VMs means adjusting the CPU, memory, disk, and
network resources of the VMs to match their workload requirements. Rightsizing the VMs can
optimize their performance and utilization, and avoid overprovisioning or underprovisioning.
Question # 12
A technician is trying to delete six decommissioned VMs. Four VMs were deleted without issue.
However, two of the VMs cannot be deleted due to an error. Which of the following would MOST
likely enable the technician to delete the VMs?
A. Remove the snapshots B. Remove the VMs' IP addresses C. Remove the VMs from the resource group D. Remove the lock from the two VMs
Answer: D
Explanation: Removing the lock from the two VMs is what would most likely enable the technician to delete the
VMs that cannot be deleted due to an error. A lock is a feature that prevents certain actions or
operations from being performed on a resource or service, such as deleting, modifying, moving, etc.
A lock can help to protect a resource or service from accidental or unwanted changes or removals.
Removing the lock from the two VMs can enable the technician to delete them by allowing the
delete action or operation to be performed on them.
Question # 13
A systems administrator is configuring updates on a system. Which of the following update branches
should the administrator choose to ensure the system receives updates that are maintained for at
least four years?
A. LTS B. Canary C. Beta D. Stable
Answer: A
Explanation: LTS (Long Term Support) is the update branch that the administrator should choose to ensure the
system receives updates that are maintained for at least four years. An update branch is a category or
group of updates that have different characteristics or features, such as frequency, stability, duration,
etc. An update branch can help customers to choose the type of updates that suit their needs and
preferences. LTS is an update branch that provides updates that are stable, reliable, and secure, and
are supported for a long period of time, usually four years or more. LTS can help customers who
value stability and security over new features or functions, and who do not want to change or
upgrade their systems frequently.
Question # 14
A company that performs passive vulnerability scanning at its transit VPC has detected a vulnerability
related to outdated web-server software on one of its public subnets. Which of the following can the
use to verify if this is a true positive with the LEAST effort and cost? (Select TWO).
A. A network-based scan B. An agent-based scan C. A port scan D. A red-team exercise E. A credentialed scan F. A blue-team exercise G. Unknown environment penetration testing
Answer: BE Explanation: The correct answer is B and E. An agent-based scan and a credentialed scan can help verify if the
vulnerability related to outdated web-server software is a true positive with the least effort and cost.
An agent-based scan is a type of vulnerability scan that uses software agents installed on the target
systems to collect and report data on vulnerabilities. This method can provide more accurate and
detailed results than a network-based scan, which relies on network traffic analysis and probes1. An
agent-based scan can also reduce the network bandwidth and performance impact of scanning, as
well as avoid triggering false alarms from intrusion detection systems2. A credentialed scan is a type of vulnerability scan that uses valid login credentials to access the target
systems and perform a more thorough and comprehensive assessment of their configuration, patch
level, and vulnerabilities. A credentialed scan can identify vulnerabilities that are not visible or
exploitable from the network level, such as missing updates, weak passwords, or misconfigured
services3. A credentialed scan can also reduce the risk of false positives and false negatives, as well
as avoid causing damage or disruption to the target systems3. A network-based scan, a port scan, a red-team exercise, a blue-team exercise, and unknown
environment penetration testing are not the best options to verify if the vulnerability is a true
positive with the least effort and cost. A network-based scan and a port scan may not be able to
detect the vulnerability if it is not exposed or exploitable from the network level. A red-team
exercise, a blue-team exercise, and unknown environment penetration testing are more complex,
time-consuming, and costly methods that involve simulating real-world attacks or defending against
them. These methods are more suitable for testing the overall security posture and resilience of an
organization, rather than verifying a specific vulnerability4.
Question # 15
A company needs to migrate the storage system and batch jobs from the local storage system to a
public cloud provider. Which of the following accounts will MOST likely be created to run the batch
processes?
A. User B. LDAP C. Role-based D. Service
Answer: D
Explanation: A service account is what will most likely be created to run the batch processes that migrate the
storage system and batch jobs from the local storage system to a public cloud provider. A service
account is a special type of account that is used to perform automated tasks or operations on a
system or service, such as running scripts, applications, or processes. A service account can provide
benefits such as:
Security: A service account can have limited or specific permissions and roles that are required to
perform the tasks or operations, which can prevent unauthorized or malicious access or actions.
Efficiency: A service account can run the tasks or operations without any human intervention or
interaction, which can save time and effort.
Reliability: A service account can run the tasks or operations consistently and accurately, which can
reduce errors or failures.
Question # 16
A company had a system compromise, and the engineering team resolved the issue after 12 hours.
Which of the following information will MOST likely be requested by the Chief Information Officer
(CIO) to understand the issue and its resolution?
A. A root cause analysis B. Application documentation C. Acquired evidence D. Application logs
Answer: A
Explanation: A root cause analysis is what will most likely be requested by the Chief Information Officer (CIO) to
understand the issue and its resolution after a system compromise that was resolved by the
engineering team after 12 hours. A root cause analysis is a technique of investigating and identifying
the underlying or fundamental cause or reason for an incident or issue that affects or may affect the
normal operation or performance of a system or service. A root cause analysis can help to
understand the issue and its resolution by providing information such as:
What happened: This describes what occurred during the incident or issue, such as symptoms,
effects, impacts, etc.
Why it happened: This explains why the incident or issue occurred, such as triggers, factors,
conditions, etc.
How it was resolved: This details how the incident or issue was fixed or mitigated, such as actions,
steps, methods, etc.
How it can be prevented: This suggests how the incident or issue can be avoided or reduced in the
future, such as recommendations, improvements, changes, etc.
Question # 17
A systems administrator has received an email from the virtualized environment's alarms indicating
the memory was reaching full utilization. When logging in, the administrator notices that one out of
a five-host cluster has a utilization of 500GB out of 512GB of RAM. The baseline utilization has been
300GB for that host. Which of the following should the administrator check NEXT?
A. Storage array B. Running applications C. VM integrity D. Allocated guest resources
Answer: D
Explanation: Allocated guest resources is what the administrator should check next after receiving an email from
the virtualized environment's alarms indicating the memory was reaching full utilization and noticing
that one out of a five-host cluster has a utilization of 500GB out of 512GB of RAM. Allocated guest
resources are the amount of resources or capacity that are assigned or reserved for each guest
system or device within a host system or device. Allocated guest resources can affect performance
and utilization of host system or device by determining how much resources or capacity are available
or used by each guest system or device. Allocated guest resources should be checked next by
comparing them with the actual usage or demand of each guest system or device, as well as
identifying any overallocation or underallocation of resources that may cause inefficiency or wastage.
Question # 18
A systems administrator adds servers to a round-robin, load-balanced pool, and then starts receiving
reports of the website being intermittently unavailable. Which of the following is the MOST likely
cause of the issue?
A. The network is being saturated. B. The load balancer is being overwhelmed. C. New web nodes are not operational. D. The API version is incompatible. E. There are time synchronization issues.
Answer: C
Explanation: New web nodes are not operational is the most likely cause of the issue of website being
intermittently unavailable after adding servers to a round-robin, load-balanced pool. A round-robin,
load-balanced pool is a method of distributing network traffic evenly and sequentially among
multiple servers or nodes that provide the same service or function. A round-robin, load-balanced
pool can help to improve performance, availability, and scalability of network applications or services
by ensuring that no server or node is overloaded or underutilized. New web nodes are not
operational if they are not configured properly or functioning correctly to provide web service or
function. New web nodes are not operational can cause website being intermittently unavailable by
disrupting the round-robin, load-balanced pool and creating inconsistency or unreliability in web
service or function.
Question # 19
A systems administrator is working in a globally distributed cloud environment. After a file server VM
was moved to another region, all users began reporting slowness when saving files. Which of the
following is the FIRST thing the administrator should check while troubleshooting?
A. Network latency B. Network connectivity C. Network switch D. Network peering
Answer: A
Explanation: Network latency is the first thing that the administrator should check while troubleshooting slowness
when saving files after a file server VM was moved to another region in a globally distributed cloud
environment. Network latency is a measure of how long it takes for data to travel from one point to
another over a network or connection. Network latency can affect performance and user experience
of cloud applications or services by determining how fast data can be transferred or processed
between clients and servers or vice versa. Network latency can vary depending on various factors,
such as distance, bandwidth, congestion, interference, etc. Network latency can increase when a file
server VM is moved to another region in a globally distributed cloud environment, as it may increase
the distance and decrease the bandwidth between clients and servers, which may result in delays or
errors in data transfer or processing.
Question # 20
A cloud engineer is deploying a server in a cloud platform. The engineer reviews a security scan
report. Which of the following recommended services should be disabled? (Select TWO).
A. Telnet B. FTP C. Remote login D. DNS E. DHCP F. LDAP
Answer: AB Explanation: Telnet and FTP are two services that should be disabled on a cloud server because they are insecure
and vulnerable to attacks. Telnet and FTP use plain text to transmit data over the network, which
means that anyone who can intercept the traffic can read or modify the data, including usernames,
passwords, commands, files, etc. This can lead to data breaches, unauthorized access, or malicious
actions on the server1. Instead of Telnet and FTP, more secure alternatives should be used, such as SSH (Secure Shell) and
SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol). SSH and SFTP use encryption to protect the data in transit and
provide authentication and integrity checks for the communication. SSH and SFTP can prevent
eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing of the data and ensure the confidentiality and privacy of the
server2. The other options are not services that should be disabled on a cloud server:
Option C: Remote login. Remote login is a service that allows users to access a remote server from
another location using a network connection. Remote login can be useful for managing, configuring,
or troubleshooting a cloud server without having to physically access it. Remote login can be secured
by using encryption, authentication, authorization, and logging mechanisms3. Option D: DNS (Domain Name System). DNS is a service that translates human-friendly domain
names into IP addresses that can be used to communicate over the Internet. DNS is essential for
resolving the names of the cloud resources and services that are hosted on the cloud platform. DNS
can be secured by using DNSSEC (DNS Security Extensions), which add digital signatures to DNS
records to verify their authenticity and integrity. Option E: DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol). DHCP is a service that assigns IP addresses
and other network configuration parameters to devices on a network. DHCP can simplify the
management of IP addresses and avoid conflicts or errors in the network. DHCP can be secured by
using DHCP snooping, which filters out unauthorized DHCP messages and prevents rogue DHCP
servers from assigning IP addresses. Option F: LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol). LDAP is a service that stores and organizes
information about users, devices, and resources on a network. LDAP can provide identity
management and access control for the cloud environment. LDAP can be secured by using LDAPS
(LDAP over SSL/TLS), which encrypts the LDAP traffic and provides authentication and integrity
checks.
