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CompTIA CS0-003 Sample Questions
Question # 1
An employee accessed a website that caused a device to become infected with invasivemalware. The incident response analyst has:• created the initial evidence log.• disabled the wireless adapter on the device.• interviewed the employee, who was unable to identify the website that was accessed• reviewed the web proxy traffic logs.Which of the following should the analyst do to remediate the infected device?
A. Update the system firmware and reimage the hardware. B. Install an additional malware scanner that will send email alerts to the analyst. C. Configure the system to use a proxy server for Internet access. D. Delete the user profile and restore data from backup.
Answer: A Explanation: Updating the system firmware and reimaging the hardware is the best action to perform to remediate the infected device, as it helps to ensure that the device is restoredto a clean and secure state and that any traces of malware are removed. Firmware is atype of software that controls the low-level functions of a hardware device, such as amotherboard, hard drive, or network card. Firmware can be updated or flashed to fix bugs,improve performance, or enhance security. Reimaging is a process of erasing andrestoring the data on a storage device, such as a hard drive or a solid state drive, using animage file that contains a copy of the operating system, applications, settings, and files.Reimaging can help to recover from system failures, data corruption, or malware infections.Updating the system firmware and reimaging the hardware can help to remediate theinfected device by removing any malicious code or configuration changes that may havebeen made by the malware, as well as restoring any missing or damaged files or settingsthat may have been affected by the malware. This can help to prevent further damage,data loss, or compromise of the device or the network. The other actions are not aseffective or appropriate as updating the system firmware and reimaging the hardware, asthey do not address the root cause of the infection or ensure that the device is fully cleanedand secured. Installing an additional malware scanner that will send email alerts to theanalyst may help to detect and remove some types of malware, but it may not be able tocatch all malware variants or remove them completely. It may also create conflicts orperformance issues with other security tools or systems on the device. Configuring thesystem to use a proxy server for Internet access may help to filter or monitor some types ofmalicious traffic or requests, but it may not prevent or remove malware that has alreadyinfected the device or that uses other methods of communication or propagation. Deletingthe user profile and restoring data from backup may help to recover some data or settingsthat may have been affected by the malware, but it may not remove malware that hasinfected other parts of the system or that has persisted on the device.
Question # 2
A SOC analyst identifies the following content while examining the output of a debuggercommand over a client-server application:getconnection (database01, "alpha " , "AXTV. 127GdCx94GTd") ;Which of the following is the most likely vulnerability in this system?
A. Lack of input validation B. SQL injection C. Hard-coded credential D. Buffer overflow attacks
Answer: C Explanation:The most likely vulnerability in this system is hard-coded credential. Hard-coded credentialis a practice of embedding or storing a username, password, or other sensitive informationin the source code or configuration file of a system or application. Hard-coded credentialcan pose a serious security risk, as it can expose the system or application to unauthorizedaccess, data theft, or compromise if the credential is discovered or leaked by an attacker.Hard-coded credential can also make it difficult to change or update the credential ifneeded, as it may require modifying the code or file and redeploying the system orapplication.
Question # 3
A security analyst must preserve a system hard drive that was involved in a litigationrequest Which of the following is the best method to ensure the data on the device is notmodified?
A. Generate a hash value and make a backup image. B. Encrypt the device to ensure confidentiality of the data. C. Protect the device with a complex password. D. Perform a memory scan dump to collect residual data.
Answer: A Explanation: Generating a hash value and making a backup image is the best method toensure the data on the device is not modified, as it creates a verifiable copy of the originaldata that can be used for forensic analysis. Encrypting the device, protecting it with apassword, or performing a memory scan dump do not prevent the data from being alteredor deleted. Verified References: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-002 Certification Study Guide, page3291
Question # 4
During an incident, some loCs of possible ransomware contamination were found in agroup of servers in a segment of the network. Which of the following steps should be takennext?
A. Isolation B. Remediation C. Reimaging D. Preservation
Answer: A Explanation: Isolation is the first step to take after detecting some indicators ofcompromise (IoCs) of possible ransomware contamination. Isolation prevents theransomware from spreading to other servers or segments of the network, and allows thesecurity team to investigate and contain the incident. Isolation can be done bydisconnecting the infected servers from the network, blocking the malicious traffic, orapplying firewall rules12. References: 10 Things You Should Do After a Ransomware Attack, How to Recover from aRansomware Attack: A Step-by-Step Guide
Question # 5
Which of the following would eliminate the need for different passwords for a variety orinternal application?
A. CASB B. SSO C. PAM D. MFA
Answer: B Explanation: Single Sign-On (SSO) allows users to log in with a single ID and password toaccess multiple applications. It eliminates the need for different passwords for variousinternal applications, streamlining the authentication process.
Question # 6
An analyst wants to ensure that users only leverage web-based software that has beenpre-approved by the organization. Which of the following should be deployed?
A. Blocklisting B. Allowlisting C. Graylisting D. Webhooks
An email hosting provider added a new data center with new public IP addresses. Which ofthe following most likely needs to be updated to ensure emails from the new data center donot get blocked by spam filters?
A. DKIM B. SPF C. SMTP D. DMARC
Answer: B Explanation: SPF (Sender Policy Framework) is a DNS TXT record that lists authorizedsending IP addresses for a given domain. If an email hosting provider added a new datacenter with new public IP addresses, the SPF record needs to be updated to include thosenew IP addresses, otherwise the emails from the new data center may fail SPF checks and get blocked by spam filters123 References: 1: Use DMARC to validate email, setup steps2: How to set up SPF, DKIM and DMARC: other mail & hosting providers providers 3: Setup SPF, DKIM, or DMARC records for my hosting email
Question # 8
A SOC analyst is analyzing traffic on a network and notices an unauthorized scan. Whichof the following types of activities is being observed?
A. Potential precursor to an attack B. Unauthorized peer-to-peer communication C. Rogue device on the network D. System updates
Answer: A
Question # 9
An organization has activated the CSIRT. A security analyst believes a single virtual serverwas compromised and immediately isolated from the network. Which of the followingshould the CSIRT conduct next?
A. Take a snapshot of the compromised server and verify its integrity B. Restore the affected server to remove any malware C. Contact the appropriate government agency to investigate D. Research the malware strain to perform attribution
Answer: A Explanation: The next action that the CSIRT should conduct after isolating thecompromised server from the network is to take a snapshot of the compromised server andverify its integrity. Taking a snapshot of the compromised server involves creating an exactcopy or image of the server’s data and state at a specific point in time. Verifying its integrity involves ensuring that the snapshot has not been altered, corrupted, or tampered withduring or after its creation. Taking a snapshot and verifying its integrity can help preserveand protect any evidence or information related to the incident, as well as prevent anytampering, contamination, or destruction of evidence.
Question # 10
A security analyst has prepared a vulnerability scan that contains all of the company'sfunctional subnets. During the initial scan, users reported that network printers began toprint pages that contained unreadable text and icons.Which of the following should the analyst do to ensure this behavior does not oocur duringsubsequent vulnerability scans?
A. Perform non-credentialed scans. B. Ignore embedded web server ports. C. Create a tailored scan for the printer subnet. D. Increase the threshold length of the scan timeout.
Answer: C Explanation: The best way to prevent network printers from printing pages during avulnerability scan is to create a tailored scan for the printer subnet that excludes the portsand services that trigger the printing behavior. The other options are not effective for thispurpose: performing non-credentialed scans may not reduce the impact on the printers;ignoring embedded web server ports may not cover all the possible ports that causeprinting; increasing the threshold length of the scan timeout may not prevent the printingfrom occurring.References: According to the CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition1,one of the objectives for the exam is to “use appropriate tools and methods to manage,prioritize and respond to attacks and vulnerabilities”. The book also covers the usage andsyntax of vulnerability scanning tools, such as Nessus, Nmap, and Qualys, in chapter 4.Specifically, it explains the meaning and function of each component in vulnerabilityscanning, such as credentialed vs. non-credentialed scans, port scanning, and scanscheduling1, pages 149-160. It also discusses the common issues and challenges ofvulnerability scanning, such as network disruptions, false positives, and scan scope1,pages 161-162. Therefore, this is a reliable source to verify the answer to the question.
Question # 11
Which of the following makes STIX and OpenloC information readable by both humans andmachines?
A. XML B. URL C. OVAL D. TAXII
Answer: A Explanation:The correct answer is A. XML. STIX and OpenloC are two standards for representing and exchanging cyber threatintelligence (CTI) information. STIX stands for Structured Threat Information Expressionand OpenloC stands for Open Location and Identity Coordinates. Both standards use XMLas the underlying data format to encode the information in a structured and machinereadableway. XML stands for Extensible Markup Language and it is a widely usedstandard for defining and exchanging data on the web. XML uses tags, attributes, andelements to describe the structure and meaning of the data. XML is also human-readable,as it uses plain text and follows a hierarchical and nested structure.XML is not the only format that can be used to make STIX and OpenloC informationreadable by both humans and machines, but it is the most common and widely supportedone. Other formats that can be used include JSON, CSV, or PDF, depending on the usecase and the preferences of the information producers and consumers. However, XML hassome advantages over other formats, such as:XML is more expressive and flexible than JSON or CSV, as it can define complexdata types, schemas, namespaces, and validation rules.XML is more standardized and interoperable than PDF, as it can be easily parsed,transformed, validated, and queried by various tools and languages.XML is more compatible with existing CTI standards and tools than other formats,as it is the basis for STIX 1.x, TAXII 1.x, MAEC, CybOX, OVAL, and others.References:1 Introduction to STIX - GitHub Pages2 5 Best Threat Intelligence Feeds in 2023 (Free & Paid Tools) - Comparitech3 What Are STIX/TAXII Standards? - Anomali Resources4 What is STIX/TAXII? | Cloudflare5 Sample Use | TAXII Project Documentation - GitHub Pages6 Trying to retrieve xml data with taxii - Stack Overflow7 CISA AIS TAXII Server Connection Guide8 CISA AIS TAXII Server Connection Guide v2.0 | CISA
Question # 12
A security analyst found the following vulnerability on the company’s website:<INPUT TYPE=“IMAGE” SRC=“javascript:alert(‘test’);”>Which of the following should be implemented to prevent this type of attack in the future?
A. Input sanitization B. Output encoding C. Code obfuscation D. Prepared statements
Answer: A Explanation:This is a type of web application vulnerability called cross-site scripting (XSS), which allows an attacker to inject malicious code into a web page that is viewed by other users. XSS canbe used to steal cookies, session tokens, credentials, or other sensitive information, or toperform actions on behalf of the victim.Input sanitization is a technique that prevents XSS attacks by checking and filtering theuser input before processing it. Input sanitization can remove or encode any characters orstrings that may be interpreted as code by the browser, such as <, >, ", ', or javascript:.Input sanitization can also validate the input against a predefined format or range of values,and reject any input that does not match.Output encoding is a technique that prevents XSS attacks by encoding the output beforesending it to the browser. Output encoding can convert any characters or strings that maybe interpreted as code by the browser into harmless entities, such as <, >, ", ', orjavascript:. Output encoding can also escape any special characters that may have adifferent meaning in different contexts, such as , /, or ;.Code obfuscation is a technique that makes the source code of a web application moredifficult to read and understand by humans. Code obfuscation can use techniques such asrenaming variables and functions, removing comments and whitespace, replacing literalswith expressions, or adding dummy code. Code obfuscation can help protect theintellectual property and trade secrets of a web application, but it does not prevent XSSattacks.
Question # 13
A systems administrator receives reports of an internet-accessible Linux server that isrunning very sluggishly. The administrator examines the server, sees a high amount ofmemory utilization, and suspects a DoS attack related to half-open TCP sessionsconsuming memory. Which of the following tools would best help to prove whether thisserver was experiencing this behavior?
A. Nmap B. TCPDump C. SIEM D. EDR
Answer: B Explanation:TCPDump is the best tool to prove whether the server was experiencing a DoS attackrelated to half-open TCP sessions consuming memory. TCPDump is a command-line toolthat can capture and analyze network traffic, such as TCP, UDP, and ICMP packets.TCPDump can help the administrator to identify the source and destination of the traffic,the TCP flags and sequence numbers, the packet size and frequency, and otherinformation that can indicate a DoS attack. A DoS attack related to half-open TCP sessionsis also known as a SYN flood attack, which is a type of volumetric attack that aims toexhaust the network bandwidth or resources of the target server by sending a large amountof TCP SYN requests and ignoring the TCP SYN-ACK responses. This creates a backlogof half-open connections on the server, which consume memory and CPU resources, andprevent legitimate connections from being established12. TCPDump can help theadministrator to detect a SYN flood attack by looking for a high number of TCP SYNpackets with different source IP addresses, a low number of TCP SYN-ACK packets, and avery low number of TCP ACK packets34. References: SYN flood DDoS attack | Cloudflare,What is a SYN flood attack and how to prevent it? | NETSCOUT, TCPDump - A PowerfulTool for Network Analysis and Security, How to Detect a SYN Flood Attack with TCPDump
Question # 14
Which of the following is the best action to take after the conclusion of a security incident toimprove incident response in the future?
A. Develop a call tree to inform impacted users B. Schedule a review with all teams to discuss what occurred C. Create an executive summary to update company leadership D. Review regulatory compliance with public relations for official notification
Answer: B Explanation: One of the best actions to take after the conclusion of a security incident toimprove incident response in the future is to schedule a review with all teams to discusswhat occurred, what went well, what went wrong, and what can be improved. This review isalso known as a lessons learned session or an after-action report. The purpose of thisreview is to identify the root causes of the incident, evaluate the effectiveness of theincident response process, document any gaps or weaknesses in the security controls, andrecommend corrective actions or preventive measures for future incidents. OfficialReferences: https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyberkill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack/
Question # 15
Which of the following should be updated after a lessons-learned review?
A. Disaster recovery plan B. Business continuity plan C. Tabletop exercise D. Incident response plan
Answer: D Explanation: A lessons-learned review is a process of evaluating the effectiveness andefficiency of the incident response plan after an incident or an exercise. The purpose of thereview is to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the incident response plan, and toupdate it accordingly to improve the future performance and resilience of the organization.Therefore, the incident response plan should be updated after a lessons-learned review.References: The answer was based on the NCSC CAF guidance from the National CyberSecurity Centre, which states: “You should use post-incident and post-exercise reviews toactively reduce the risks associated with the same, or similar, incidents happening in future.Lessons learned can inform any aspect of your cyber security, including: Systemconfiguration Security monitoring and reporting Investigation proceduresContainment/recovery strategies”
Question # 16
A malicious actor has gained access to an internal network by means of social engineering.The actor does not want to lose access in order to continue the attack. Which of thefollowing best describes the current stage of the Cyber Kill Chain that the threat actor iscurrently operating in?
A. Weaponization B. Reconnaissance C. Delivery D. Exploitation
Answer: D Explanation: The Cyber Kill Chain is a framework that describes the stages of acyberattack from reconnaissance to actions on objectives. The exploitation stage is where attackers take advantage of the vulnerabilities they have discovered in previous stages tofurther infiltrate a target’s network and achieve their objectives. In this case, the maliciousactor has gained access to an internal network by means of social engineering and doesnot want to lose access in order to continue the attack. This indicates that the actor is in theexploitation stage of the Cyber Kill Chain. Official References:https://www.lockheedmartin.com/en-us/capabilities/cyber/cyber-kill-chain.ht
Question # 17
Which of the following best describes the process of requiring remediation of a knownthreat within a given time frame?
A. SLA B. MOU C. Best-effort patching D. Organizational governance
Answer: A Explanation: An SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a contract or agreement between aservice provider and a customer that defines the expected level of service, performance,quality, and availability of the service. An SLA also specifies the responsibilities,obligations, and penalties for both parties in case of non-compliance or breach of theagreement. An SLA can help organizations to ensure that their security services aredelivered in a timely and effective manner, and that any security incidents or vulnerabilitiesare addressed and resolved within a specified time frame. An SLA can also help toestablish clear communication, expectations, and accountability between the serviceprovider and the customer12An MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) is a document that expresses a mutualagreement or understanding between two or more parties on a common goal or objective.An MOU is not legally binding, but it can serve as a basis for future cooperation or collaboration. An MOU may not be suitable for requiring remediation of a known threatwithin a given time frame, as it does not have the same level of enforceability, specificity, ormeasurability as an SLA.Best-effort patching is an informal and ad hoc approach to applying security patches orupdates to systems or software. Best-effort patching does not follow any defined process,policy, or schedule, and relies on the availability and discretion of the system administratorsor users. Best-effort patching may not be effective or efficient for requiring remediation of aknown threat within a given time frame, as it does not guarantee that the patches areapplied correctly, consistently, or promptly. Best-effort patching may also introduce newrisks or vulnerabilities due to human error, compatibility issues, or lack of testing.Organizational governance is the framework of rules, policies, procedures, and processesthat guide and direct the activities and decisions of an organization. Organizationalgovernance can help to establish the roles, responsibilities, and accountabilities of differentstakeholders within the organization, as well as the goals, values, and principles that shapethe organizational culture and behavior. Organizational governance can also help to ensurecompliance with internal and external standards, regulations, and laws. Organizationalgovernance may not be sufficient for requiring remediation of a known threat within a giventime frame, as it does not specify the details or metrics of the service delivery orperformance. Organizational governance may also vary depending on the size, structure,and nature of the organization.
Question # 18
Which of the following can be used to learn more about TTPs used by cybercriminals?
A. ZenMAP B. MITRE ATT&CK C. National Institute of Standards and Technology D. theHarvester
Answer: B Explanation: MITRE ATT&CK is a globally accessible knowledge base of adversarytactics and techniques based on real-world observations. It is used as a foundation for thedevelopment of specific threat models and methodologies in the private sector, ingovernment, and in the cybersecurity product and service community. It can help securityprofessionals understand, detect, and mitigate cyber threats by providing a comprehensiveframework of TTPs.References: MITRE ATT&CK, Getting Started with ATT&CK, MITRE ATT&CK | MITRE
Question # 19
An analyst is evaluating a vulnerability management dashboard. The analyst sees that apreviously remediated vulnerability has reappeared on a database server. Which of thefollowing is the most likely cause?
A. The finding is a false positive and should be ignored. B. A rollback had been executed on the instance. C. The vulnerability scanner was configured without credentials. D. The vulnerability management software needs to be updated.
Answer: B Explanation:A rollback had been executed on the instance. If a database server is restored to aprevious state, it may reintroduce a vulnerability that was previously fixed. This can happendue to backup and recovery operations, configuration changes, or software updates. Arollback can undo the patching or mitigation actions that were applied to remediate thevulnerability. References: Vulnerability Remediation: It’s Not Just Patching, Section: TheRemediation Process; Vulnerability assessment for SQL Server, Section: Remediation
Question # 20
A security program was able to achieve a 30% improvement in MTTR by integratingsecurity controls into a SIEM. The analyst no longer had to jump between tools. Which ofthe following best describes what the security program did?
A. Data enrichment B. Security control plane C. Threat feed combination D. Single pane of glass
Answer: D Explanation: A single pane of glass is a term that describes a unified view or interface thatintegrates multiple tools or data sources into one dashboard or console. A single pane ofglass can help improve security operations by providing visibility, correlation, analysis, andalerting capabilities across various security controls and systems. A single pane of glasscan also help reduce complexity, improve efficiency, and enhance decision making forsecurity analysts. In this case, a security program was able to achieve a 30% improvementin MTTR by integrating security controls into a SIEM, which provides a single pane of glassfor security operations. Official References: https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurityexchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack